Why does Socrates want a definition of piety from Euthyphro?
Socrates then wants to know if piety is a part of justice, and if it is, of what part does it consist? Euthyphro replies that piety is that part of justice that attends to the gods, just as there is another part of justice that attends to men. This, too, is unsatisfactory because we do not know what “attends” means.
What does Socrates ask Euthyphro to define?
In this dialogue by Plato, we have Socrates in dialogue with Euthyphro as they attempt to establish a definitive meaning for the word piety (virtue). It is a prime example of how a “Socratic” style teaching works, as Socrates keeps asking questions and forces Euthyphro to try and clarify his thinking.
How does Socrates define piety?
4): Piety is that which is dear to the gods, and impiety is that which is not dear to them. Socrates’ reply (p. 6): We are told that the gods disagree with one another; what is dear to one is hated by another. And so according to this definition, it would seem that some acts are both pious and impious.
What does Socrates conclude about Euthyphro’s 2nd attempt at defining piety?
Euthyphro’s second definition: Piety is what is pleasing to the gods/ what is approved by the gods. (6e-7a) Socrates applauds this definition, because it is expressed in a general form, but criticises it saying that the gods disagree among themselves as to what is pleasing.
What does Euthyphro say piety is at first?
1st Definition: Piety is what Euthyphro is doing now, namely prosecuting wrongdoers. Impiety is failing to do this.
What does Socrates mean by the form and why does Euthyphro’s second definition of piety fail to reveal the form?
definition 2. Euthyphro’s second definition: Piety is what is pleasing to the gods/ what is approved by the gods. (6e-7a) Socrates applauds this definition, because it is expressed in a general form, but criticises it saying that the gods disagree among themselves as to what is pleasing.
What is the main point of Euthyphro?
| The Euthyphro Argument | ||
|---|---|---|
| 1 | DCT is true. | |
| 2 | If DCT is true, then morality is dependent on God’s will. | |
| ∴ | 3 | Morality is dependent on God’s will. |
| 4 | Either an action X is morally right because God commands X or God commands X because X is morally right. |
How does Euthyphro first try to define piety or holiness?
Euthyphro felt frustrated and defined piety as that which pleases all the gods. This definition prompted Socrates to ask Euthyphro the question, “Is what is pious loved by (all) the gods because it is already pious, or is it pious merely because it is something loved by them?” (Burrington, n.d.).
Why do Socrates and Euthyphro reject the definition of piety as what all the gods love starting at 9d )? What assumptions do they make?
Socrates rejects Euthyphro’s action, because it is not a definition of piety, and is only an example of piety, and does not provide the essential characteristic that makes pious actions pious. Euthyphro’s second definition: Piety is what is pleasing to the gods/ what is approved by the gods.
What does Euthyphro means when he says piety is what all the gods love?
Euthyphro 9e-11b. “the pious is what all the gods love, and the opposite, what all the gods hate, is the impious.” Thus E. is proposing that what all pious things have in common is that these are the things that are loved by all of the gods.
What is the form of piety?
reverence for God or devout fulfillment of religious obligations: a prayer full of piety. the quality or state of being pious: saintly piety. dutiful respect or regard for parents, homeland, etc.: filial piety. a pious act, remark, belief, or the like: the pieties and sacrifices of an austere life.